BNS MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for BNS - Download Free PDF

The correct answer is Feeding an animal properly and taking care of its health

Key Points

• Section 325 of BNS says, Whoever commits mischief by killing, poisoning, maiming or rendering useless any animal shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both.

The correct answer is Mischief includes acts that destroy or diminish the value or utility of property

Key Points

• Section 324 of BNS says, Whoever with intent to cause, or knowing that he is likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage to the public or to any person, causes the destruction of any property, or any such change in any property or in the situation thereof as destroys or diminishes its value or utility, or affects it injuriously, commits mischief.
• Explanation 1 -It is not essential to the offence of mischief that the offender should intend to cause loss or damage to the owner of the property injured or destroyed. It is sufficient if he intends to cause, or knows that he is likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage to any person by injuring any property, whether it belongs to that person or not.
• Explanation 2 -Mischief may be committed by an act affecting property belonging to the person who commits the act, or to that person and others jointly.

The correct answer is ​All of the above

Key Points

• Section 322 of BNS criminalizes dishonest or fraudulent execution, signing, or participation in any deed or instrument that falsely represents the consideration, intended beneficiary, or nature of a property transfer or charge. The law aims to prevent fraudulent documentation that could mislead parties or authorities about the true nature of a transaction. The punishment includes imprisonment for up to three years, a fine, or both. 

The correct answer is Both A and B

Key Points

• Section 321 of BNS criminalizes any act of dishonestly or fraudulently preventing a debt or demand due to oneself or another person from being used according to law for settling debts. This ensures that debts are not unlawfully concealed or obstructed from being utilized for their rightful legal purpose. The punishment for this offense includes imprisonment for up to two years, a fine, or both.

The correct answer is All of the above

Key Points

• According to Section 320 of BNS, it is an offense to dishonestly or fraudulently remove, conceal, deliver, or transfer property without adequate consideration with the intent or knowledge that it will prevent its lawful distribution among creditors. Such acts are punishable with imprisonment of at least six months, which may extend to two years, or with a fine, or both. 

In News

• India’s three new criminal laws — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam — take effect today (July 1).
• On 11 August 2023, Amit Shah, the Minister of Home Affairs, introduced the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Bill, 2023 in the Lok Sabha. However, on 12 December 2023, this bill was withdrawn.
• On the same day, the Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita Bill, 2023 was introduced in the Lok Sabha. Subsequently, on December 20 2023, the Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita Bill, 2023 was passed in the Lok Sabha.
• The following day, on 21 December 2023, it was passed in the Rajya Sabha. Finally, on 25 December 2023, the Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita Bill, 2023 received the assent of the President of India.

Key Points

• Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (c):
  • Purpose: Official criminal code of the Republic of India.
  • Effective Date: Came into effect on 1 July 2024.
  • Legislative Background: Passed by the Parliament in December 2023.
  • Replaced Legislation: Replaces the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which was established during British India.
  • Structure:
    • Comprises 20 chapters and 358 sections.
    • Structure is similar to the IPC.
• Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS):
  • Purpose: Main legislation for the procedure of administering substantive criminal law in India.
  • Key Provisions:
    • Bail and Plea Bargaining: Makes it more difficult for the accused to secure bail and limits the scope for plea bargaining.
    • Digital Devices: Empowers police officers to compel an accused to produce their digital devices for investigation purposes.
    • Property Seizure: Allows police the discretion to seize and attach the property of an accused before a trial.
    • Preliminary Inquiry: Mandates a preliminary inquiry by the police before lodging an FIR for every cognisable offence punishable for three years or more but less than seven years.
• Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023:
  • Purpose: Acts as the Indian Evidence Act.
  • Legislative Changes:
    • Consists of 170 sections compared to 167 sections in the previous Indian Evidence Act.
    • Modifications: 23 sections have been modified, five sections removed, and one new section added.

In News

• India’s three new criminal laws — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam — take effect today (July 1).
• Chapter 17
  • Extortion (308) 
  • Criminal Breach of Trust (316)
  • Receiving of Stolen Property (317)
• Chapter 19
  • Defamation (356)

Key Points

• Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS):
  • Purpose: Official criminal code of the Republic of India.
  • Effective Date: Came into effect on 1 July 2024.
  • Legislative Background: Passed by the Parliament in December 2023.
  • Replaced Legislation: Replaces the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which was established during British India.
  • Structure:
    • Comprises 20 chapters and 358 sections.
    • Structure is similar to the IPC.
• Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS):
  • Purpose: Main legislation for the procedure of administering substantive criminal law in India.
  • Key Provisions:
    • Bail and Plea Bargaining: Makes it more difficult for the accused to secure bail and limits the scope for plea bargaining.
    • Digital Devices: Empowers police officers to compel an accused to produce their digital devices for investigation purposes.
    • Property Seizure: Allows police the discretion to seize and attach the property of an accused before a trial.
    • Preliminary Inquiry: Mandates a preliminary inquiry by the police before lodging an FIR for every cognisable offence punishable for three years or more but less than seven years.
• Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023:
  • Purpose: Acts as the Indian Evidence Act.
  • Legislative Changes:
    • Consists of 170 sections compared to 167 sections in the previous Indian Evidence Act.
    • Modifications: 23 sections have been modified, five sections removed, and one new section added.

In News

• India’s three new criminal laws — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam — take effect today (July 1).
• The most significant colonial remnant in our criminal laws is the IPC’s ‘Offences Against the State’ chapter, which includes sedition under Section 124A.
• In the BNS, this has been replaced by Section 152, titled ‘Act Endangering Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India,’ with some differences from the original IPC offense.

Key Points

• Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS):
  • Purpose: Official criminal code of the Republic of India.
  • Effective Date: Came into effect on 1 July 2024.
  • Legislative Background: Passed by the Parliament in December 2023.
  • Replaced Legislation: Replaces the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which was established during British India.
  • Structure:
    • Comprises 20 chapters and 358 sections.
    • Structure is similar to the IPC.
• Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS):
  • Purpose: Main legislation for the procedure of administering substantive criminal law in India.
  • Key Provisions:
    • Bail and Plea Bargaining: Makes it more difficult for the accused to secure bail and limits the scope for plea bargaining.
    • Digital Devices: Empowers police officers to compel an accused to produce their digital devices for investigation purposes.
    • Property Seizure: Allows police the discretion to seize and attach the property of an accused before a trial.
    • Preliminary Inquiry: Mandates a preliminary inquiry by the police before lodging an FIR for every cognizable offence punishable for three years or more but less than seven years.
• Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023:
  • Purpose: Acts as the Indian Evidence Act.
  • Legislative Changes:
    • Consists of 170 sections compared to 167 sections in the previous Indian Evidence Act.
    • Modifications: 23 sections have been modified, five sections removed, and one new section added.

The correct answer is Option 1

Key Points

• Section 18. Accident in Performing a Lawful Act
• An act is not considered an offense if it occurs accidentally or by misfortune, without criminal intent or knowledge, while performing a lawful act in a lawful manner, with appropriate care and caution.
• Illustration:
  • A is using a hatchet, and the head of the hatchet flies off and kills a bystander. If A exercised proper caution, the incident is excusable and not deemed an offense.

The correct answer is Option 3

Key Points Section 189: Unlawful Assembly

Definition of Unlawful Assembly: An assembly of five or more persons is deemed an "unlawful assembly" if its common objective is:

• To intimidate by criminal force or show of criminal force the Central or State Government, Parliament, any State Legislature, or a public servant in the exercise of lawful duties.
• To resist the execution of any law or legal process.
• To commit mischief, criminal trespass, or any other offense.
• To use or threaten criminal force to take possession of property, deprive someone of a right of way, or enforce a right or supposed right.
• To use or threaten criminal force to compel someone to do something they are not legally bound to do, or to prevent them from doing something they are legally entitled to do.

Explanation: An assembly that was initially lawful may later become unlawful.

• Participation in an Unlawful Assembly: Anyone who, knowing the assembly is unlawful, intentionally joins or continues to be part of it shall be punished with imprisonment up to six months, or a fine, or both.
• Failure to Disperse: Anyone who remains in an unlawful assembly after it has been lawfully commanded to disperse shall be punished with imprisonment up to two years, or a fine, or both.
• Armed Members: If a member of an unlawful assembly is armed with a deadly weapon or anything that could cause death, they shall be punished with imprisonment up to two years, or a fine, or both. [Section 189(4)]
• Disturbance of Public Peace: Anyone who knowingly joins or continues in an assembly likely to disturb public peace after being ordered to disperse shall be punished with imprisonment up to six months, or a fine, or both.
• Explanation: If the assembly meets the definition of unlawful assembly in subsection (1), the punishment under subsection (3) applies.
• Hiring for Unlawful Assembly: Anyone who hires, engages, or encourages another to join an unlawful assembly shall be punished as if they were a member of that assembly and for any crimes committed by that assembly.
• Harboring Members of an Unlawful Assembly: Anyone who harbors, receives, or assembles people knowing they have been hired or are about to join an unlawful assembly shall be punished with imprisonment up to six months, or a fine, or both.
• Engagement in Unlawful Acts: Anyone engaged, hired, or attempting to be hired to assist in carrying out any unlawful acts described in subsection (1) shall be punished with imprisonment up to six months, or a fine, or both.
• Armed Engagement: Anyone hired or engaged to join an unlawful assembly who goes armed with a deadly weapon or anything likely to cause death shall be punished with imprisonment up to two years, or a fine, or both.

The correct answer is Option 3

Key PointsSection 140: Kidnapping or Abducting in Order to Murder or for Ransom, etc.

• Kidnapping/Abducting with Intent to Murder: Whoever kidnaps or abducts any person with the intent that the person may be murdered or placed in a situation where they are in danger of being murdered shall be punished with:
  • Imprisonment for life, or
  • Rigorous imprisonment for a term of up to ten years, and
  • Shall also be liable to a fine.

The correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

• ​Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 provides that: "Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, is, by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that it is wrong or contrary to law, provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered without his knowledge or against his will."
• So, to claim exemption from liability, the following must be proven:
  • The person was incapable of understanding the act due to intoxication,
  • And the intoxication was involuntary (without knowledge or against his will).
• Voluntary intoxication is not a valid defence under this section.

The correct answer is Is not guilty, as he lacked the mental capacity to understand his act

Key Points

• Under Section 22 of the BNS, 2023, a person is not criminally liable if, at the time of the act, due to unsoundness of mind, they:
  • Cannot understand the nature of the act,
  • Or cannot recognize that it is wrong or contrary to law.
• In this case, R meets both conditions.
• Therefore, no offence is committed, even if the act (like killing) is serious, because criminal intent (mens rea) is absent.

The correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

• Section 21 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 states: "Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve years of age, who has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge of the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion."
• This section:
  • Recognizes that children in the 7-12 age group are in a transitional maturity stage.
  • Their criminal liability depends on whether they had the maturity to understand the wrongful nature of the act at the time it was committed.
  • It is a question of fact in each case, to be determined by the court.
• This provision corresponds to Section 83 of the IPC.

The correct answer is Option 2

Key Points According to Section 44 of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, if a person is under reasonable apprehension of death and cannot defend himself without risking harm to an innocent person, his right of private defence remains valid. This ensures that a person can protect themselves even in complex situations.