UPSC General Knowledge Questions Solved Problems with Detailed Solutions [Free PDF]

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• Furnace Oil is one of the cheapest fuels available for industrial use.It is a by-product of petroleum refineries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Furnace oil is a dark coloured fuel either distilled or residual fraction of crude oil that is extracted while petroleum distillation and is used for the purpose of generation heat and power. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is used primarily for steam boilers in power plants, aboard ships, and in industrial plants. Various categories of industries such as cement, thermal power plant, fertilizers, nitric acid, lime kiln, ceramic, glass, foundry, reheating furnaces, calcium carbide, aluminium, boiler-based industries etc., use pet coke and furnace oil for various purposes including as fuel.
• It causes huge emissions of sulphur dioxide and secondary sulphate formation as particulate matter (PM). Hence statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is 2 and 3

Key Points 

Copepods:

• Copepods are of great ecological importance, providing food for many species of fish. 
• Free-living copepods form a crucial link in the food chain and are often assigned the role of "primary consumers". Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Cyanobacteria:

• Cyanobacteria, also called blue-green algae, are microscopic organisms found naturally in all types of water.
• These single-celled organisms live in fresh, brackish (combined salt and fresh water), and marine water.
• These organisms use sunlight to make their own food. Hence statement 2 is correct.

​Diatoms:

• Diatoms are photosynthesizing algae, they have a siliceous skeleton (frustule) and are found in almost every aquatic environment including fresh and marine waters, soils, in fact almost anywhere moist. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Foraminifera:

• Foraminifera are found in all marine environments, they may be planktic or benthic in their mode of life.
• Foraminifera are recorded as feeding chiefly upon bacteria, small diatoms, and nannoplankton in a wide variety of marine environments. Hence statement 4 is incorrect

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Difference Between Blu-Ray and DVD:
  • ​A standard DVD holds 4.7 gigabytes of data. On the other hand, a double-layer Blu-ray disc can hold a massive 50 GB of data. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video. A DVD is a standard definition device, Blu-Ray is made for HD. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Both DVD and Blu-Ray players use lasers to read the discs. The difference is that the DVD laser is a red laser that works at a 650nm wavelength. The Blu-Ray laser is blue and works on shorter 405nm wavelengths.
  • The DVD is made up of two discs of 0.6mm thickness i.e. total of 1.2 mm, Blue-ray disc also has a thickness of 1.2 mm. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

The correct answer is 1 and 3.

Key Points

• How do you deal with a Current Account Deficit?
  • CAD exists due to a host of factors including existing exchange rate, consumer spending level, capital inflow, inflation level, and prevailing interest rate.
  • For the Current Account Deficit in India, crude oil and gold imports are the primary reasons behind high CAD.
  • The Current Account Deficit could be reduced by boosting exports and curbing non-essential imports such as gold, mobiles, and electronics. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Currency hedging and bringing easier rules for manufacturing entities to raise foreign funds could also help.
  • The government and RBI could also look to review debt investment limits for FPIs, among other measures.
• Devaluing the domestic currency makes the export of a country competitive in the international market, which eventually helps to increase export and to earn foreign currency. This can help to reduce CAD. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Reduction in the export subsidy will discourage export and export from India will become expensive at the international market vis-a-vis other countries. Thus, CAD will increase. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Important Points

• The current account deficit (CAD):
  • It is a measurement of a country’s trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the products it exports.
  • To understand CAD in detail, it is essential to learn about the Current Account.
    • A nation’s Current Account maintains a record of the country’s transactions with other nations, in terms of trade of goods and services, net earnings on overseas investments and net transfer of payments over a period of time, such as remittances.
    • This account goes into a deficit when money sent outward exceeds that coming inward.
  • Current Account Deficit is slightly different from Balance of Trade, which measures only the gap in earnings and expenditure on exports and imports of goods and services.
    • Whereas, the current account also factors in the payments from domestic capital deployed overseas.
    • For example, rental income from an Indian owning a house in the UK would be computed in the Current Account, but not in the Balance of Trade.
• How do you calculate the Current Account Deficit?
  • The current account constitutes net income, interest and dividends and transfers such as foreign aid, remittances, donations among others. It is measured as a percentage of GDP.
  • Trade gap = Exports – Imports
  • Current Account = Trade gap + Net current transfers + Net income abroad
• Is the Current Account Deficit something to worry about?
  • Current Account Deficit may be a positive or negative indicator for an economy depending upon why it is running a deficit.
  • Foreign capital is seen to have been used to finance investments in many economies.
  • Current Account Deficit may help a debtor nation in the short-term, but it may worry in the long-term as investors begin raising concerns over adequate return on their investments.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points

CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES:

1. The bodies/institutions that find a place in the Constitution of India, are termed Constitutional Bodies.
2. The table mentioned below contains the names of the Constitutional Bodies and the Article in which they are mentioned:

NON-CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES:

• The institutions that do not find a place in the Constitution and are established after passing an act of Parliament.
• Following are some of the Non-Constitutional Bodies:

1. Central Bureau of Investigation
2. Central Information Commission
3. Central Vigilance Commission
4. Lokpal and Lokayuktas
5. NITI Aayog
6. National Development Council
7. National Disaster Management Authority
8. National Human Right Commission
9. National Investigation Agency
10. State Human Right Commission

The correct answer is 3 and 4 only.

Key Points

• DRDA has traditionally been the principal organ at the district level to oversee the implementation of anti-poverty programmes of the Ministry of Rural Development.
• From April 1999 a separate DRDA Administration has been introduced to take care of the administrative costs.
• Expenses of DRDAs are funded on a 75:25 basis between Centre and State Governments.
• However, from 2008-09 the funding pattern for N.E. States has been changed from 75: 25 to 90: 10. In the case of UTs, the Centre provides entire (100%) funds under the Scheme.

Important Points

Duties

• DRDA is a supporting and facilitating organisation and needs to play a very effective role as a catalyst in the development process. 
  • ​They are expected to coordinate with the line departments, the Panchayati Raj Institutions, the banks and other financial institutions, the NGOs as well as the technical institutions.
  • The DRDAs are expected to coordinate effectively with the Panchayati Raj institutions. Under no circumstances will they perform the functions of PRIs. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Thus the role of the DRDA is in terms of planning for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes; coordinating with other agencies- Governmental, non-Governmental, technical and financial for successful programme implementation; enabling the community and the rural poor to participate in the decision making process, overseeing the implementation to ensure adherence to guidelines, quality, equity and efficiently; reporting to the prescribed authorities on the implementation; and promoting transparency in decision making and implementation. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• DRDA will continue to watch over and ensure effective utilisation of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes, it will need to develop a far greater understanding of the processes necessary for poverty alleviation/ eradication. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• The DRDAs shall take the necessary step to improve the awareness regarding rural development and poverty alleviation particularly among the rural poor. 
• The DRDAs will strive to promote transparency in the implementation of different anti-poverty programmes. Towards this end, they shall publish periodically, the details of the different programmes and their implementation.
• No such provisions are there for DRDAs to undertake an area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

• The three main components of classical dances are
  • Natya (the dramatic element of the dance i.e. the imitation of characters)
  • Nritta (the dance movements in their basic form)
  • Nritya (expressional component i.e. mudras or gestures)
  • Garba is a folk dance of Gujarat.

There are eight classical dances in India:

1. Bharatanatyam: Tamil Nadu
2. Mohiniyattam: Kerala (Hence 2nd statement is wrong)
3. Kathakali: Kerala
4. Kathak: North India (Uttar Pradesh)
5. Kuchipudi: Andhra Pradesh 
6. Sattriya: Assam
7. Odissi: Odisha 
8. Manipuri: Manipur

Important Points

• Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of Karnataka that depicts mythological stories and Puranas.
• It is a temple art form performed with massive headgears and vibrant costumes.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Article 75 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
• A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Article 118 of the Indian Constitution permits both houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) of Parliament to make its own rules for its functioning.
• There is no mention of "no-confidence" motion in the Articles of Indian Constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Rule 198 of Lok Sabha mentions the procedure for a motion of no-confidence.
• Once a notice is given, the speaker reads it in the House and asks those who are in favour of it.
• In case there are 50 MPs in favour, a date for discussing the motion is assigned.
• The vote has to take place within 10 days of the notice, if the majority of the members vote in favour of the motion then the motion is passed and the government in power has to vacate the office.

The correct answer is Directive Principles of State Policy.

• A welfare state is a concept of government where the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social welfare of its citizens.
• DPSPs promote the ideal of the welfare state by emphasizing the state to promote the welfare of people by providing them with basic facilities like shelter, food, and clothing.

Key Points

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
  • Articles 36-51 of Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). 
  • They are borrowed from the constitution of Ireland. 
  • They act as directives to the government to create any law.
  • They act as the ‘instrument of instructions’.

Additional Information

• Preamble:
  • The preamble can be referred to as the preface of the constitution as it highlights the entire constitution.
  • The preamble is the soul of the constitution as it is the part of the constitution.
  • Preamble acts as an interpreter of the constitution.
  • Whenever a question of doubt arises in the interpretation of the constitution then the matter is decided in the light of preamble.
• Fundamental Rights:
  • Articles 12-35 of Part - III of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights.
  • Fundamental rights are enforceable in the court of law.
  • The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of powers and functions between Union & States.

The correct answer is Namdapha National Park.

Namdapha National Park

• The Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot
• It is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India.
• The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarp forests, comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rainforests.
• The habitat changes with increasing altitude from tropical moist forests to Montane forests, temperate forests and at the higher elevations, to Alpine meadows and perennial snow.

Khangchendzonga National Park

• Khangchendzonga and Nandadevi National park do not have tropical vegetation.
• Khangchendzonga National Park is also known as Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve is a National Park and a Biosphere reserve located in Sikkim.
• It was inscribed to the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list in July 2016.

Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve

• Nanda Devi National Park is situated in three districts of Uttarakhand (Chamoli in Garhwal, Pithoragarh in Kumaon and Bageshwar).
• Nanda Devi National Park together with Valley of Flowers is encompassed in the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve.
• This reserve has been part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves since 2004.

Neora Valley National Park

• Neora Valley National Park is situated in the Kalimpong district, West Bengal, India and was established in 1986.
• It spreads over an area of 88 km² and is one of the richest biological zones in entire Eastern India.
• It is the land of the elegant red panda in the pristine undisturbed natural habitat with rugged inaccessible hilly terrain and rich diverse flora and fauna making this park an important wilderness zone.

The correct answer is 2 only.

• Panchayat Raj System:
  • Part IX of the Constitution deals with Panchayat Raj System in India.
  • Panchayati Raj was constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
  • All the seats in panchayat are filled by direct election.
  • The chairperson of each panchayat is elected according to the law passed by the state.
  • Every panchayat can continue for a term of five years from the date of its first meeting.
  • It can be dissolved earlier in accordance with state law.
  • A panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder of the period. But if the remainder of the period is less than 6 months it is not necessary to hold elections. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • All the persons above 21 years of age and qualified to be a member panchayat. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • A state can authorize a panchayat to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, etc.
  • Finance Commission is constituted for every 5 years to review the financial position of panchayats and make recommendations.
  • The state election commissioner is appointed by the Governor for superintendence, direction, and control of elections to panchayats.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key PointsTRAFFIC:

• Overview:
  • TRAFFIC stands for Trade-Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce.
  • It is a leading non-governmental organization focused on the trade of wild animals and plants.
• Objective:
  • The primary mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals does not threaten the conservation of nature.
  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Parent Organisation:
  • TRAFFIC is not a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  • Instead, it is a joint initiative of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and the World Wildlife Fund (WWF).
  • Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

Additional InformationUnited Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

• Establishment:
  • UNEP was established on 5th June 1972, following the Stockholm Conference on the Environment, with its headquarters located in Nairobi, Kenya.
• Mission:
  • The mission of UNEP is to protect the environment by encouraging nations to adopt conservation initiatives and fostering partnerships among countries to enhance environmental conservation efforts.
• Key Areas of Focus:
• UNEP works across six critical areas for nature conservation:
  • Climate Change
  • Ecosystem Management
  • Disaster Management
  • Environmental Governance
  • Sustainable Production and Consumption
  • Hazardous/Harmful Substances

The correct answer is option 2 i.e 2 and 4 only.

• Tyagaraja was born on 14th May 1767 in the village of Thiruvayaru in the Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu whereas TaḷḷapākaAnnamācārya (or Annamayya) (22 May 1408 – 4 April 1503) was a 15th-century Hindu saint. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Tyagaraja was an ardent devotee of lord Rama. In his praise and honour he wrote numerous musical operas, and about twenty four thousand songs, a claim that has been speculated among music historians.
• Tyagaraja’s songs and compositions are full of devotion to his god Rama. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• Tyagaraja introduced several unusual ragas in Carnatic music. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in prais of Lord Venkateshwara.
• TaḷḷapākaAnnamācārya (or Annamayya) is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu. (Hence statement 4 is correct)