PCNDT ACT MCQ Quiz in తెలుగు - Objective Question with Answer for PCNDT ACT - ముఫ్త్ [PDF] డౌన్‌లోడ్ కరెన్

The correct answer is Imprisonment up to three months or a fine up to ₹1,000 or both.

Key Points

• As per Section 25 of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, if any person contravenes the provisions of the Act or its rules for which no specific penalty is provided, they are liable for imprisonment up to three months, a fine up to ₹1,000, or both.
• Additionally, if the contravention continues after conviction, an extra fine of ₹500 per day is imposed until compliance is ensured.
• This provision ensures that all violations, even those not explicitly covered, are penalized to maintain strict enforcement of the Act. 

The correct answer is 'Option 2'

Key Points

• Presumption under Section 24:
  • Section 24 of PCPNDT Act creates a statutory presumption regarding the coercion of a pregnant woman to undergo pre-natal diagnostic techniques for unlawful purposes.
  • The court assumes that the woman was coerced by her husband or relatives unless there is evidence to the contrary.
  • This provision aims to protect pregnant women from being forced into undergoing such procedures, particularly for sex determination, which is illegal.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (Incorrect):
  • This option suggests that the court presumes the woman voluntarily opted for the procedure, which is contrary to the protective intention of Section 24.
  • It does not align with the legal safeguard intended to protect pregnant women from coercion.
• Option 3 (Incorrect):
  • This option states that the court requires direct evidence of coercion without any presumption, which negates the protective presumption provided under Section 24.
  • It places an undue burden on the woman to prove coercion.
• Option 4 (Incorrect):
  • This option incorrectly places the burden of proof entirely on the pregnant woman to establish coercion.
  • Under Section 24, the burden shifts to the accused to disprove coercion once the presumption is established.

The correct answer is 'Fine up to ₹10,000 and imprisonment up to three years.'

Key Points

• Punishment for violating prohibition on advertisements related to pre-natal sex determination:
  • Section 22(3) of the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, deals with the prohibition of advertisements relating to pre-natal sex determination.
  • The law mandates that any person who publishes, distributes, or causes to publish or distribute any advertisement related to pre-natal sex determination shall face punitive actions.
  • The punishment under this section includes imprisonment for a period that may extend up to three years and a fine that may extend to ₹10,000.

Additional Information

• Incorrect options:
  • Fine up to ₹50,000 and imprisonment up to five years: This option exaggerates the monetary fine and imprisonment duration beyond the provisions of Section 22(3).
  • Only a monetary fine with no imprisonment: This option is incorrect as the law explicitly states that the punishment includes both fine and imprisonment.
  • Community service for up to six months: This option is not stipulated under Section 22(3) of the Act, which specifies imprisonment and fine as the penalties.

The correct answer is ‘The Appropriate Authority may suspend or cancel registration after giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard and considering the Advisory Committee’s advice’.

Key Points

• Section 20 of the Act:
  • Section 20 of the Act pertains to the procedure for cancellation or suspension of registration of a Genetic Counselling Centre, Genetic Laboratory, or Genetic Clinic.
  • The Appropriate Authority is empowered to suspend or cancel the registration of such centers or clinics.
• Reasonable Opportunity and Advisory Committee’s Advice:
  • The Appropriate Authority must provide a reasonable opportunity for the center or clinic to be heard before taking any action regarding suspension or cancellation of registration.
  • The decision must also consider the advice of the Advisory Committee before finalizing the suspension or cancellation.

Additional Information

• Option 1:
  • This option is incorrect because the Appropriate Authority does not need a formal complaint to initiate suspension or cancellation of registration.
• Option 2:
  • This option is incorrect because while a notice is typically required, Section 20(3) allows for immediate suspension without notice in the public interest with reasons recorded in writing.
• Option 4:
  • This option is incorrect as Section 20(3) specifically allows for the suspension of registration without prior notice under certain urgent circumstances.

The correct answer is 'Publishing an advertisement related to pre-natal determination of sex.'

Key Points

• Prohibition under Section 22:
  • Section 22 of the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, specifically prohibits the advertisement of pre-natal sex determination and sex selection services.
  • This includes any form of advertisement, whether in print, electronic, or online media, that promotes or suggests the availability of facilities for pre-natal determination of sex.
  • The aim is to prevent the misuse of diagnostic techniques for sex-selective abortions and to curb the practice of gender-biased sex selection.

Additional Information

• Conducting medical research on pre-natal diagnostic techniques:
  • Conducting legitimate medical research on pre-natal diagnostic techniques is not prohibited, provided it complies with ethical guidelines and regulations.
  • Such research must not be aimed at or result in sex determination or selection.
• Using ultrasound machines for general medical imaging:
  • Ultrasound machines are commonly used for a variety of medical imaging purposes and are not prohibited.
  • The restriction applies only when these machines are used for determining the sex of the fetus.
• Providing legal awareness about the prohibition of sex determination:
  • Creating awareness about the laws prohibiting sex determination and promoting legal education is encouraged and not prohibited.
  • Such initiatives are crucial for the effective implementation of the Act and for preventing sex-selective practices.

The correct answer is 'The Appropriate Authority shall issue the certificate only after an inquiry and consideration of the Advisory Committee’s advice.'

Key Points

• Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994:
  • The Act is aimed at preventing sex selection and ensuring that diagnostic techniques are not misused for determining the sex of the fetus.
  • It regulates genetic counseling centers, genetic laboratories, and genetic clinics by requiring them to be registered.
• Section 19 of the Act:
  • Section 19 outlines the procedure for the issuance of a certificate of registration to Genetic Counselling Centres, Genetic Laboratories, or Genetic Clinics.
  • The Appropriate Authority must conduct an inquiry to ensure compliance with the Act before issuing a certificate.
  • The decision to issue the certificate also requires consideration of the advice of the Advisory Committee.

Additional Information

• Option 1: The Appropriate Authority may issue the certificate without an inquiry:
  • This option is incorrect because the Act explicitly requires an inquiry to be conducted before issuing the certificate.
• Option 3: The applicant receives the certificate automatically upon application:
  • This option is incorrect as the issuance of the certificate is not automatic; it requires an inquiry and consideration of the Advisory Committee's advice.
• Option 4: No certificate is required for operating a Genetic Clinic:
  • This option is incorrect because the Act mandates that all Genetic Clinics, Genetic Laboratories, and Genetic Counselling Centres must be registered and have a certificate to operate legally.

The correct answer is 'The State Supervisory Board'

Key Points

• State Supervisory Board:
  • The State Supervisory Board is designated under Section 16A(1) of the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994.
  • This board is responsible for implementing measures to create public awareness against sex selection before conception at the state level.
  • It undertakes activities to promote awareness about the legal consequences of sex selection and the importance of gender equality.
  • The board collaborates with other government agencies, NGOs, and civil society to propagate the message against sex selection.

Additional Information

• The Supreme Court of India:
  • The Supreme Court of India is the apex judicial body and does not engage in the creation of public awareness campaigns.
  • Its primary role is to interpret the Constitution and adjudicate legal disputes.
• The Central Supervisory Board:
  • The Central Supervisory Board operates at the national level and oversees the implementation of the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994.
  • While it provides guidelines and policies, the actual execution of public awareness campaigns at the state level is the responsibility of the State Supervisory Board.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs:
  • The Ministry of Home Affairs handles internal security and law and order but does not directly engage in specific public awareness campaigns related to pre-conception sex selection.
  • Its role is more centered around policy-making and administration rather than specific public health awareness initiatives.

The required quorum for a State Supervisory Board meeting is 'one-third of the total number of members'

Key Points

• Quorum for State Supervisory Board meetings:
  • The term "quorum" refers to the minimum number of members that must be present for the proceedings of a meeting to be valid.
  • For the State Supervisory Board meetings, the required quorum is one-third of the total number of members.
  • This means that if the board has 30 members, at least 10 members must be present to constitute a quorum and hold a valid meeting.
  • This requirement ensures that decisions are made with adequate representation and participation from the board members.

Additional Information

• One-fourth of the members:
  • This option suggests that the quorum is one-fourth of the total members, which means fewer members need to be present.
  • However, this is not sufficient to ensure adequate participation and representation in decision-making.
• Half of the members:
  • This option suggests that a higher number of members (50%) must be present, which may be more challenging to achieve regularly.
  • While this ensures significant representation, it is not the required quorum as per Section 16A(7).
• Two-thirds of the members:
  • This option indicates an even higher threshold, requiring two-thirds of the members to be present.
  • Although this ensures very high participation, it is impractical for regular meetings and is not the stipulated requirement.

The correct answer is 'The Chairman or an authorized member'

Key Points

• Authentication of orders and decisions by the Central Supervisory Board:
  • The Central Supervisory Board is a statutory body, and its orders and decisions need to be authenticated to ensure their validity and enforceability.
  • As per Section 13, all orders and decisions of the Board must be authenticated by the signature of the Chairman or another authorized member.
  • This requirement ensures that the actions taken by the Board are legitimate and have been duly approved by the highest authorities within the Board.

Additional Information

• Prime Minister:
  • The Prime Minister is the head of the government and is responsible for overall administration and policy direction. However, the Prime Minister does not authenticate orders and decisions of the Central Supervisory Board.
  • Authentication by the Prime Minister would be outside the scope of their typical duties and responsibilities.
• Attorney General of India:
  • The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the government but does not have the authority to authenticate orders and decisions of the Central Supervisory Board.
  • The role of the Attorney General is primarily advisory and represents the government in legal matters.
• Chief Justice of India:
  • The Chief Justice of India is the head of the judiciary and the Supreme Court but does not have the responsibility to authenticate orders and decisions of the Central Supervisory Board.
  • The Chief Justice's duties are confined to the judicial branch, ensuring the independence and proper functioning of the judiciary.

The correct answer is 'Two consecutive terms'

Key Points

• Maximum number of terms for Central Supervisory Board members:
  • The Central Supervisory Board is a statutory body responsible for overseeing certain regulatory functions.
  • As per Section 15, members, excluding ex-officio members, cannot be appointed for more than two consecutive terms.
  • This limit ensures periodic infusion of new members and perspectives, enhancing the Board's effectiveness and accountability.

Additional Information

• One term:
  • The option of serving only one term would not allow for continuity and the retention of experienced members on the Board.
  • It would limit the ability to build on institutional knowledge and long-term projects.
• Unlimited terms:
  • Allowing unlimited terms could lead to stagnation and lack of fresh perspectives on the Board.
  • It could also result in potential issues related to accountability and governance.
• No term limits:
  • Similar to unlimited terms, having no term limits would not provide the necessary checks and balances to ensure effective governance.
  • Without term limits, the Board might not benefit from new ideas and changes in regulatory perspectives.