Law Officer MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Law Officer - Download Free PDF

The correct answer is Life Imprisonment.

Key Points

• In the Information Technology Act, the penalty for Cyber Terrorism is life imprisonment.
• Anyone who commits or conspires to commit cyber terrorism will face prison time, which could last a lifetime.

Additional Information

• Section 66 F of the Indian Information Technology Amendment Act of 2008
  • It includes a provision addressing cyber terrorism.
  • It addresses 'denial of access, unauthorized access, introduction of computer contaminant causing harm to persons, property, critical infrastructure, and supply disruption.
  • This is a non-bailable offense.
• The term "cyber-crimes" is not defined in any statute or rulebook.
• The word "cyber" is slang for anything relating to computers, information technology, the internet, and virtual reality.
• Therefore, it stands to reason that "cyber-crimes" are offenses relating to computers, information technology, the internet, and virtual reality.

The correct answer is Option 2

Key Points Section 2(f) of the RTI Act defines "information" to include various forms of official material such as records, documents, memos, emails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, and orders—provided they are part of the official record. Informal personal opinions not forming part of the official record do not qualify as "information" under the RTI Act.

The correct answer is 'Settlement Officer.'

Key Points

• Role of the Settlement Officer:
  • Under the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, the task of dividing villages into soil classes is assigned to the Settlement Officer.
  • The Settlement Officer is a designated official responsible for conducting land and revenue surveys, classifying soils, and fixing land revenue assessments.
  • Soil classification involves categorizing land based on its fertility, productivity, and other factors, which directly impacts the revenue to be levied on the landowners.
  • By classifying soil, the Settlement Officer ensures a fair and systematic assessment of land revenue, maintaining uniformity across villages.

Additional Information

• Explanation of other options:
  • Patwari:
    • The Patwari is a village-level revenue official responsible for maintaining land records, collecting revenue, and assisting in local administrative tasks.
    • While the Patwari plays a vital role in land administration, they are not authorized to classify soils or conduct settlement operations.
  • Survey Officer:
    • The Survey Officer conducts surveys for mapping land boundaries and preparing cadastral maps.
    • They focus on technical aspects of land measurement rather than soil classification.
  • Collector:
    • The Collector is the highest revenue officer at the district level, overseeing revenue collection, land administration, and dispute resolution.
    • Although the Collector has supervisory authority, the task of soil classification is delegated to the Settlement Officer under the Act.
• Importance of soil classification:
  • Soil classification helps in determining the agricultural potential of land and aids in equitable revenue assessment.
  • This process supports effective land management and ensures that farmers are taxed according to the productivity of their land.

The correct answer is 'The average cost of irrigation systems in the area'

Key Points

• Overview of Section 152 of The Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956:
  • This section outlines the factors that the Settlement Officer must consider while determining rent-rates for agricultural land in Rajasthan.
  • The purpose is to ensure that rent-rates are reasonable and equitable, reflecting the agricultural conditions and economic realities faced by cultivators in the region.
• Factors considered under Section 152:
  • The value of agricultural produce at average prices: This ensures that rent-rates are reflective of the income that cultivators can derive from their produce, based on average market prices.
  • The expenses of cultivation and subsistence of the cultivator: This factor accounts for the cost of agricultural inputs (such as seeds, fertilizers, and labor) and the basic livelihood needs of the farmer.
  • The frequency of remissions and short collections: This considers past instances where rent collection was reduced or waived due to adverse conditions like droughts or floods, ensuring that rent-rates are realistic and sustainable.
• Why 'The average cost of irrigation systems in the area' is not considered:
  • The cost of irrigation systems is a capital expenditure borne by the farmer or local authorities and does not directly influence rent-rates.
  • Rent-rates are determined based on recurring agricultural conditions and economic factors, not on one-time infrastructure costs like irrigation systems.
  • While irrigation impacts agricultural productivity, its cost is not a direct parameter for determining equitable rent-rates under Section 152.

Additional Information

• Factors that indirectly affect rent determination:
  • Irrigation infrastructure, while not directly considered, can influence agricultural productivity and, in turn, the value of agricultural produce.
  • Other factors like soil fertility, climatic conditions, and access to markets may also indirectly impact rent-rates but are not explicitly listed under Section 152.
• Importance of equitable rent-rates:
  • Ensuring fair rent-rates helps maintain social and economic balance, preventing exploitation of cultivators by landowners.
  • It also promotes sustainable agricultural practices by aligning rent-rates with the economic realities of farming.

The correct answer is 'One-sixth'.

Key Points

• Overview of Section 152(2) of The Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956:
  • Section 152(2) of The Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956 governs the maximum share of the value of agricultural produce that can be fixed as rent-rate for tenants.
  • The provision is aimed at protecting tenants from exploitation by landlords and ensuring fair rent practices in agricultural land leasing.
  • This law is part of the broader framework to regulate land revenue and tenancy rights in Rajasthan.
• Maximum Share Allowed as Rent:
  • Under this section, the maximum share of the produce that can be fixed as the rent-rate is one-sixth of the total value of the agricultural produce.
  • This limitation ensures that landlords do not demand excessive rent, leaving tenants with adequate earnings from their agricultural activities.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options Analysis:
  • One-fourth: This would constitute 25% of the produce, which is higher than the permissible limit under the act and would impose an excessive burden on tenants.
  • One-third: Equivalent to 33.33%, this is also significantly higher than the maximum rent-rate of one-sixth allowed under Section 152(2).
  • One-fifth: This corresponds to 20%, which, while lower than the previous options, still exceeds the legal limit of one-sixth as prescribed by the act.
• Significance of the Provision:
  • This provision reflects the state's commitment to tenant welfare and equitable agricultural practices.
  • It ensures that tenants retain a majority of their produce, promoting sustainable agricultural livelihoods.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e Paris

Explanation:

UNESCO

• It stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.
• It was formed on 4th November 1945.
• Its headquarters are in Paris, France.
• Currently, UNESCO has 193 members and 11 associates members.
  • The US, Israel, and Liechtenstein are members of the UN, but not members UNESCO.
  • Three countries, namely, Palestine, Niue, and the Cook Islands are members of UNESCO, but not of the UN.
• India was the founding member of UNESCO.
• India has 42 world heritage sites.

The correct answer is "Not brave".

Key Points

• An idiom is a widely used saying or expression containing a figurative meaning that differs from the phrase's literal meaning.
  • Example: "Its raining like cats and dogs" means it is raining very heavily.
• "Lily-livered" is an idiom that means lacking courage or cowardly.
• The phrase is often used in a derogatory or mocking way to describe someone who is afraid or hesitant to take risks.
  • Example: "He's too lily-livered to confront his boss about the unfair treatment."
• It can be concluded that option 3 describes the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is uniform civil code for the citizens.

Key Points

• Article 44 of the Indian Constitution falls under the Directive Principles of State Policy, containing guidelines for the central and state governments of India.
• It states: "The State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India".
• The directive principles, though they are non-justiciable rights of the people, are fundamental in the governance of the country.
• The uniform civil code aims to replace personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of each major religious community in India with a common set of laws governing every citizen.
• The proposal has been a part of political debate and caused significant controversy due to the importance of religion in people's lives.

Additional Information

• The living wage for workers is mentioned under Article 43 of the Indian Constitution.
• Equal justice and free legal aid can be considered under Article 39A.
• Organization of agriculture does not directly refer to any specific Article in the Constitution but is a subject the government focuses on under different policies, schemes, and initiatives.

The correct answer is Only 2.

Key Points

• Indian Penal Code, which is the official criminal code covering all aspects of criminal law.
• Section 71:
  • It is a good safeguard to ensure offenders get punished for their crime within reason, and sets a limit of punishment for an offence made up of several offences.
  • It also does not restrict the extent of the punishment to the lower limit provided for either of the two offences.
  • The offender shall not be punished with the punishment of more than one of such his of­fences,

Important Points

• Indian Penal Code:
  • The Indian Penal Code is the official criminal code of the Republic of India. 
  • It is a complete code intended to cover all aspects of criminal law.
  • It came into force in 1862 in all British Presidencies.
  • The first draft of the Indian Penal Code was prepared by the First Law Commission, chaired by Thomas Babington Macaulay.
  • IPC is sub-divided into 23 chapters that comprise 511 sections.

The correct answer is Geneva.

• The International Labour Organisation was formed on 22nd April 1919 and its current Director-General is Guy Ryder. (April 2021)

Additional Information

The correct answer is Cognizable offences.

Key Points

• For a cognizable offence, the police directly take cognizance of the crime and also do not need the approval of the court.
• In cognizable, the police can arrest a person without any warrant.
• Cognizable offences include murder, rape, theft, kidnapping, counterfeiting, etc.​

Additional Information

• Detention offence
  • Detention offenses typically refer to criminal offenses that can result in an individual being held or detained by law enforcement.
  • They encompass a wide range of infractions, from minor misdemeanors to major felonies.
• Non Cognizable offences
  • Non-cognizable offences, a concept in the legal system of India, are those offences in which a police officer has no authority to arrest without a warrant.
  • These are typically less serious offences against the State or individuals.
• Cross offences
  • Cross offences occur when two or more parties involved in an incident both allege criminal offences against each other.
  • For instance, in a physical altercation, both parties might claim that the other party was the aggressor and they themselves were acting in self-defence.
  • In such situations, both parties might lodge complaints against each other, leading to what's called cross cases or cross offences.

The correct answer is Punjab National Bank.

Key Points

• PNB was established on May 19, 1894, is India's first Swadeshi bank.
• The Bank opened for business on 12 April 1895. 
• PNB is an Indian public sector bank headquartered in New Delhi.
• Atul Kumar Goel is the current CEO of PNB.

Additional Information

• State Bank of India
  • SBI was established on 1 July 1955.
  • It is a government-owned corporation with its headquarters in Mumbai.
  • "Pure Banking, Nothing Else" is the tagline.
  • Dinesh Kumar Khara is the Chairman of the State Bank of India.
•  HDFC Bank
  • ​HDFC Bank was established in August 1994 and commenced operations as a Scheduled Commercial Bank in January 1995.
  • It is a private bank headquartered in Mumbai.
  • 'We Understand Your World' is the tagline.
  • Sashidhar Jagdishan is the current CEO of HDFC.
• Canara Bank
  • ​Canara Bank was established in July 1906 and nationalized in 1969.
  • It is headquartered in Bengaluru.
  • 'Together We Can' is the tagline.
  • Lingam Venkat Prabhakar is the current CEO of Canara Bank.

The correct answer is the Code of Criminal Procedure.

Key Points

• The provision that no woman should be arrested before sunrise or after sunset is mentioned
• The Code of Criminal Procedure or the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) is the chief legislation on the procedure for the administration of criminal law in India. It was
• It aims to provide resources for the investigation of crime, apprehension of suspected criminals, collection of evidence, determination of guilt or innocence of the accused person, and the determination of punishment of the guilty along with dealing with public nuisance, prevention of offenses, and maintenance of wife, child, and parents.

• At present, this act contains 565 sections divided into 46 chapters, 5 schedules, and 56 forms.

Additional Information

• The Indian Penal Code (IPC) is the official criminal code of India. It is a code that aims to cover all the substantive aspects of criminal law. The code was recommended by the first law commission of India (established in 1834) under the Charter Act of 1833 whose Chairman was Lord Thomas  Macaulay. It was passed in the year 1860 and came into force in British India during the early British Raj period in 1862.
• The Police Act of 1861 was enacted by the British Govt. after the revolt of 1857 to improve the efficiency of the police in the country and to prevent any future revolts. This means that the police have to always comply with those in power.
• The Probation of Offenders Act, introduced in the year 1958 aims to reform amateur offenders by providing rehabilitation in society and to prevent the conversion of youthful offenders into criminals under the environmental influence by keeping them in jails along with hardened criminals.

The correct answer is Geneva.

Key Points

• The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is established by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) Convention, which transforms BIRPI into WIPO.
• The newly founded World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is a member-state-led international organisation with headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.
• WIPO (World Intellectual Property Organization) is one of the United Nations' 15 specialised organisations (UN).
• WIPO was established in 1967 by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) Convention to promote and preserve intellectual property (IP) around the world via collaboration with countries and international organisations.
• When the convention went into effect on April 26, 1970, it commenced activities.

Important Points

• World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO):
  • Formation: 14 July 1967
  • Type: United Nations specialised agency
  • Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
  • Membership: 193 member states
  • Director-General: Daren Tang

The correct answer is Minerva Mills Case.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court, in the Minerva Mills Case, opined that the Constitution of India is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
• This landmark judgment emphasized that neither Fundamental Rights nor Directive Principles can override one another.
• The balance and harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution.
• This judgment was delivered on 31st July 1980 and is considered a crucial ruling in maintaining the basic structure doctrine established in the Keshvananda Bharati Case.

Additional Information

• Keshvananda Bharati Case (1973)
  • This landmark case established the basic structure doctrine, declaring that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be altered by any amendment.
  • The case was a challenge to the 24th Amendment of the Indian Constitution, where the Supreme Court held that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution but not its basic structure.
• Golaknath Case (1967)
  • This case ruled that Parliament could not curtail any of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under the Constitution.
  • The decision was later overturned by the 24th Amendment.
• Maneka Gandhi Case (1978)
  • This case extended the interpretation of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution.
  • The judgment emphasized the importance of due process of law and widened the scope of Article 21 by including various rights under it.
• Directive Principles of State Policy
  • These are guidelines to the central and state governments of India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies.
  • They are not justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by any court, but they are considered fundamental in the governance of the country.
• Fundamental Rights
  • These are a set of rights granted to the citizens of India under Part III of the Constitution.
  • They are enforceable by the courts and include rights such as the right to equality, freedom, religion, cultural and educational rights, etc.